Atalanta forward Kamaldeen Sulemana is facing an extended spell on the sidelines after suffering a knee injury that is expected to keep him out of action for at least two months. The Ghana international sustained a Grade II lesion to the medial collateral ligament in his left knee during a pre-season friendly against Schalke 04.
The 24-year-old was forced off during the encounter, which Atalanta won 3-0. Medical examinations confirmed the severity of the damage, ruling him out until approximately October. This represents a significant setback for the African forward as he seeks to establish himself in Italian football.
Setback under Sarri
Sulemana joined Atalanta from Southampton in the summer of 2025 for a fee of €17.5 million plus additional bonuses. However, his debut season in Serie A proved challenging. He managed three goals and two assists across 37 competitive appearances, though only 12 of those came as a starter.
The winger had been hoping to secure a more prominent role this term following the appointment of Maurizio Sarri as head coach. Sarri has implemented a trident attacking formation, which many expected would suit Sulemana’s pace and direct running style. This injury now delays any opportunity to establish himself within that tactical setup.
Attacking options affected
The loss of Sulemana reduces Sarri’s choices in the forward positions during the opening months of the season. Atalanta will need to rely on their remaining attacking players to fill the void while the Ghanaian undergoes rehabilitation.
Grade II ligament injuries involve partial tearing of the tissue and typically require careful management. Sulemana will likely undergo an initial period of rest followed by structured rehabilitation before returning to full training. The club has not specified an exact return date, though the two-month timeframe suggests the winger could be available for selection in late October or early November, provided his recovery progresses as expected.